I haven't really been following the issue and I'm confused.
Are beachfront property owners trying to argue that no one ever used the beach in front of their house before they bought it? Isn't that the only way to negate the concept of customary use? Do they say that no one ever sat on their beach before a deed was drawn up? How did these deeds with sany beach on them come to existence in the first place and when? Thanks in advance for helping me understand the issue of customary use.
Are beachfront property owners trying to argue that no one ever used the beach in front of their house before they bought it? Isn't that the only way to negate the concept of customary use? Do they say that no one ever sat on their beach before a deed was drawn up? How did these deeds with sany beach on them come to existence in the first place and when? Thanks in advance for helping me understand the issue of customary use.